Right. All physical systems are finite, so they are necessarily computable. The gap in the limit is undecidable like the halting problem is undecidable; you have to run the computation to find out and no matter how big you have made the system you cannot be sure that making it a little bigger won't change it from gapped to gapless. At least that's how I understand the result.

Brent

On 9/23/2015 8:38 AM, smitra wrote:
They are considering the limit if an infinite system size and then asking if you get a continuous spectrum or if the ground state is separated by a gap from the excited states in that limit. That this is not decidable is perhaps surprising, but this has nothing to do with Nature not being computable. Turing gave an example of a physical system that exhibits the same phenomena in an appropriate limit a long time ago.

Saibal


On 23-09-2015 06:26, Bruno Marchal wrote:
On 22 Sep 2015, at 19:27, Brent Meeker wrote:



On 9/22/2015 5:17 AM, Bruno Marchal wrote:

On 22 Sep 2015, at 00:29, Brent Meeker wrote:

A fascinating application of computability theory to physics:

Undecidability of the Spectral Gap
Toby Cubitt,  David Perez-Garcia,  and Michael M. Wolf

The spectral gap—the difference in energy between the ground state and the first excited state—is one of the most important prop- erties of a quantum many-body system. Quantum phase transitions occur when the spectral gap vanishes and the system becomes critical. Much of physicsis concerned with understanding the phase diagrams of quantum systems, and some of the most challenging and long-standing open problems in theoretical physics concern the spectral gap, 1–3 such as the Haldane conjecture 4 that the Heisen- berg chain is gapped for integer spin, proving existence of a gapped topological spin liquid phase, 2,3 or the Yang-Mills gap conjecture 5 (one of the Millennium Prize problems). These problems are all particular cases of the general spectral gap problem: Given a quan- tum many-body Hamiltonian, is the system it describes gapped or gapless? Here we show that this problem is undecidable, in the same sense as the Halting Problem was proven to be undecidable by Turing.

I guess he means unsolvable.

"undecidable" is relative to a theory. Unsolvable or uncomputable is absolute and does not depend on any theory. It means that there is no alogorithm to do some task, like computing some function or deciding some set.




6 A consequence of this is that the spectral gap of certain
quantum many-body Hamiltonians is not determined by the axioms of mathematics,

? (that does not make sense)


much as Gödels incompleteness theorem implies
that certain theorems are mathematically unprovable.

Gödel proved only that all theories are undecidable when it comes to proving propositions in some domain (like natural numbers).

It makes no sense to say that some mathematical proposition are unprovable. there always some theories which can prove them: just keep such proposition as axioms, for example. PA (or ZF, ...) cannot prove that PA is consistent, but PA + consistent(PA) can prove that PA is consistent, trivially. More interestingly: PA + epsilon-zero is well founded can also prove that PA is consistent.



We extend these results to prove undecidability of other low temperature prop-
erties, such as correlation functions.

Well, I guess again that they talk only about unsolvability, not undecidability.


The proof hinges on simple quantum many-body models that exhibit highly unusual physics in
the thermodynamic limit.

I will take a look when I have more time. I might need to revise a bit the quantum many-body problem for that!

In QM, already the 0-body problem is Turing complete (when you need at least three bodies to have Turing completeness for classical physics), so it is hard to be astonished, but I don't judge the paper (above using a vocabulary which is confusing when you know the difference between computing and proving). The main difference is that in proof theory, the result are dependent of the theory (they are not absolute), where in computability, the results are absolute if we assume Church-thesis (which is accepted by virtually all experts in the domain).

But I think their motivation was to show that nature may perform hyper-Turing computation.

? I am not sure.


 So they would not assume Church-Turing.

? You need Church thesis to define "hyper-Turing" computation. In fact
 you need a stronger version of Church's thesis, a sort of
hyper-Turing  Church thesis (the hyper-arithmetical Church's thesis).

Without Church's thesis, computation is not definable, still less
hyper-computation.

Bruno




Brent

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