On Monday, November 13, 2017 at 9:38:54 PM UTC-7, agrays...@gmail.com wrote:
>
>
>
> On Monday, November 13, 2017 at 4:22:08 PM UTC-7, John Clark wrote:
>>
>> On Mon, Nov 13, 2017 at 1:24 AM, <agrays...@gmail.com> wrote ​
>>
>> ​> ​
>>> You're conflating Multiverse with the MWI.
>>>
>>
>> ​
>> You can't have the MWI without the Multiverse, and if there is a 
>> Multiverse then the MWI explains a lot.
>> ​ ​
>> There are about 10^80 atoms in the observable universe and obviously 
>> there is a finite number of ways 10^80 atoms can be arranged in a sphere 
>> with a radius of 13.8 billion light years; so if the 
>> ​entire ​
>> universe (not to be confused with the observable universe) is infinite 
>> then at a very large but still finite distance things must repeat and there 
>> is a universe identical to our own, and at another hyper large distance 
>> there is a universe identical to ours except that the freckle on my right 
>> thumb is on my left thumb instead. And at a even greater distance one 
>> second after a John Clark hits send on a message identical to this one all 
>> the air molecules in the room he is in go to the other side of the room due 
>> to random thermal vibrations and that John Clark suffocates. Bizarre events 
>> like that are not impossible just very very unlikely, but if the universe 
>> is really infinite then everything that doesn't violate the laws of physics 
>> will happen, and the Many World people say that's what the wave function is 
>> trying to tell us, everything that can happen will happen.    
>>
>
> The concept of Multiverse and Many Worlds come from entirely different 
> contexts and theories, so the idea that they are somehow connected or 
> related strikes me a patently false. Moreover, the idea that if the 
> universe is infinite (in some parameter; spatial extent, age, whatever), 
> then anything that can happen, will happen, is IMO unproven and almost 
> certainly false. For example, we know that irrational numbers exist, but in 
> an infinite string of digits representing some irrational number, there are 
> no repetitions of any subset strings. But there should be according to your 
> conjecture.
>

*Or look at it this way; if your conjecture were true, it would be 
impossible for irrational numbers to exist, since recurring repetitions of 
subset strings would be impossible to avoid.*

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