On 10/8/2019 5:07 PM, Bruce Kellett wrote:
On Wed, Oct 9, 2019 at 10:24 AM 'Brent Meeker' via Everything List <[email protected] <mailto:[email protected]>> wrote:On 10/8/2019 2:59 PM, Philip Thrift wrote:That sounds reasonable. Indeed, it is reasonable. It is just as reasonable as the measurement postulate. In fact, it is logically entirely equivalent to the measurement postulate.It's not clear here what "logically" equivalent means. It is instrumentally equivalent...which is why it's an interpretation and not a different theory (as GRW is). It's different from the measurement postulate in that the measurement postulate says the wave function instantaneously changes to match the observed measured value. MWI says those other measured values obtain in other orthogonal subspaces of the Hilbert space and you are only observing one. Those are not "logically" the same.What do you mean by "logically equivalent"? It seems to me that if two assumptions fulfil the same explanatory role -- they are functionally equivalent -- then it is sensible to call them "logically equivalent". They fulfil the same logical role in the argument.
I mean X=>Y and Y=>X. But MWI entails some things that CI doesn't and vice versa. In the C60 buckyball experiment CI doesn't give a very satisfactory account, because it doesn't have a good definition of "measure". MWI introduced the idea of decoherence to fulfill that role without actually requiring a human observer.
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