On Wed, Oct 9, 2019 at 10:24 AM 'Brent Meeker' via Everything List < [email protected]> wrote:
> > On 10/8/2019 2:59 PM, Philip Thrift wrote: > > That sounds reasonable. Indeed, it is reasonable. It is just as reasonable > as the measurement postulate. In fact, it is logically entirely equivalent > to the measurement postulate. > > > It's not clear here what "logically" equivalent means. It is > instrumentally equivalent...which is why it's an interpretation and not a > different theory (as GRW is). It's different from the measurement > postulate in that the measurement postulate says the wave function > instantaneously changes to match the observed measured value. MWI says > those other measured values obtain in other orthogonal subspaces of the > Hilbert space and you are only observing one. Those are not "logically" > the same. > What do you mean by "logically equivalent"? It seems to me that if two assumptions fulfil the same explanatory role -- they are functionally equivalent -- then it is sensible to call them "logically equivalent". They fulfil the same logical role in the argument. Bruce -- You received this message because you are subscribed to the Google Groups "Everything List" group. To unsubscribe from this group and stop receiving emails from it, send an email to [email protected]. To view this discussion on the web visit https://groups.google.com/d/msgid/everything-list/CAFxXSLRthEzZ6MQYQYzJfzZV6JCa5ut9o4qouRN9gUfFEiCtww%40mail.gmail.com.
