On Friday, October 11, 2019 at 12:10:27 PM UTC-6, Brent wrote:
>
>
>
> On 10/11/2019 12:18 AM, Alan Grayson wrote: 
> > I am saying that SINCE there is no unique representation, it's a 
> > fallacy to take, say one representation, and assert that the 
> > components in one representation, simultaneously represent the wf. 
>
> But that's an invalid inference.  If there is no unique representation, 
> then there is more than one representation.  Some of those consist of a 
> linear composition of components.  You seem to infer that because there 
> is no unique representation then representations in terms of components 
> is wrong...but those two things are not only consistent, they are 
> logically equivalent; each one implies the other. 
>
> Brent 
>

No; on the contrary, I think all the representations are valid. What's 
invalid
is singling out one representation and asserting the system is 
simultaneously
in ALL the components of THAT representation. AG 

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