> On 31 May 2020, at 10:08, Bruce Kellett <[email protected]> wrote:
> 
> On Sun, May 31, 2020 at 5:21 PM Bruno Marchal <[email protected] 
> <mailto:[email protected]>> wrote:
> On 31 May 2020, at 07:44, Bruce Kellett <[email protected] 
> <mailto:[email protected]>> wrote:
>> On Sun, May 31, 2020 at 2:26 AM Bruno Marchal <[email protected] 
>> <mailto:[email protected]>> wrote:
>> 
>> Let us write f_n for the function from N to N computed by nth expression. 
>> 
>> Now, the function g defined by g(n) = f_n(n) + 1 is computable, and is 
>> defined on all N. So it is a computable function from N to N. It is 
>> computable because it each f_n is computable, “+ 1” is computable, and, vy 
>> our hypothesis it get all and only all computable functions from N to N.
>> 
>> But then, g has have itself an expression in that universal language, of 
>> course. There there is a number k such that g = f_k. OK?
>> 
>> But then we get that g_k, applied to k has to give f_k(k), as g = f_k, and 
>> f_k(k) + 1, by definition of g. 
>> 
>> 
>> That is a fairly elementary blunder. g_k
> 
> What is g_k?
> 
> That is your notation: "But then we get that g_k, applied to k has to give 
> f_k(k),”

That was a typo error. You need to read “g applied to k”. Sorry. But you should 
have just ask “what is g_k?”. 
I mean it is not a blunder, but a typo error (probably among many). The typo 
error is detectable from just the few words which go after. 


> 
> 
> The only enumeration here is the f_k, then we have define a precise, single, 
> function g such that
> 
> g(n) = f_n(n) + 1.  (f_n(n) is the diagonal term, you can see this by making 
> the table (the infinite matrice) with the number in the top row, and the f_i 
> in a column):
> 
>               0               1               2               3       ...
> f_0           f_0(0)  f_0(1)  f_0(2)  f_0(3)
> f_1           f_1(0)  f_1(1)  f_1(2)  f_1(3)
> f_2           f_2(0)  f_2(1)  f_2(2)  f_2(3)
> …
> Here the underlining means “+1”.
> 
> 
> 
>> applied to k, g_k(k) = f_n(k)+1,
> 
> There are no g_k.
> 
> 
> You defined g_k!!  g_k applied to k is f_k(k), and that is your error.

“g_k" just has no meaning at all. Nowhere is a sequence g_k defined. 



> 
> g is the function defined by diagonalisation. g(x) = f_x(x) + 1, that g(0) = 
> f_0(0) + 1, g(1) = f_1(1) + 1, g(2) = f_2(2) + 1, ...
> 
> But that is not what you said before.

It is. Read again, avoid the typo error when I apply g on its code k. 



> 
>  
>> by definition of g_k.
> 
> The only enumeration was the enumeration of the functions f_k
> 
>> You do not get to change the function from f_n to f_k in the expression.
> We do. 
>> It is only the argument that changes: in other words, f_n(n) becomes f_n(k).
> 
> This makes no sense. What is g(2) ? f_n(2) + 1 ? What is n then? 
> 
> 
> n is the number of the function in the ordered list of all functions from N 
> to N. Adding 1 to f_n(n) gives a different function. Diagonalization does not 
> help you here.


It defines g. 

g(n) = f_n(n) + 1

To compute g, enumerate the f_i up to f_n, and compute f_n on n, and add one. 
Of course this will lead to a contradiction, which shows that the bijection n 
—> f_n is not computable. (But that does not destroy CT, it only make the f_n 
mixed with partial (defined on a subset of N) computable function, and that 
mowing has to be non computable (if not we can filter out the partial and get a 
computable enumeration of the f_n, and get again the contradiction).



> 
> So g(n) = f_n(n)+1 is a different function.

Different from what? If it is different from all f_n, the language is no more 
universal. It means that if the language is universal, g is not computable, and 
what is not computable is not the f_n, nor “+ 1”, so it can only be the 
enumeration f_n itself. That is the point against conventionalism: computable 
entails the existence of non computable well defined entities.



> It is NOT f_n() with some different argument. So your attempt to make them 
> the same function is invalid.


?

Are you saying that you believe that we can enumerate computably the computable 
functions from N to N? If that is the case, you have missed the argument.

Apology for the typo error. But now that it is has been corrected, you might 
read more cautiously the argument; I just do not understand you last remark. I 
will re-explain, if necessary. This post is the minimal think to proceed. It 
ex^lmains also why the universal dovetailer has to … dovetail, necessarily.


Bruno






> 
> Bruce
> 
>> So you are talking nonsense.
> 
> You miss the diagonal. Read again.
> 
> Bruno
> 
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