--- In [email protected], "authfriend" <[EMAIL PROTECTED]> wrote:
>
> --- In [email protected], "Patrick Gillam" <jpgillam@> 
> wrote:
> >
> > --- In [email protected], "authfriend" <jstein@> 
wrote:
> > >
> > > My knowledge of grammar is almost completely by ear
> > 
> > Same here. My mom had excellent grammar, and I picked it 
> > up from her. As a result, I never learned the rules. I could 
> > talk good without them.
> >  
> > I would say "Neither Barry nor I are going to agree 
> > to that," or "neither Barry nor I am inclined to agree."
> > 
> > To me, neither/nor is treated like either/or, and 
> > verbs after "or" take the case of the closest noun, 
> > or whatever you call it.
> 
> Well, I went and looked it up at Random House's grammar
> Q&A page.  It doesn't deal specifically with "is" vs.
> "am"--i.e., when there's a personal pronoun--but it does
> point out that "neither/nor" can be singular *or* plural,
> because while "neither/nor" is the negative counterpart
> of "either/or," which always takes singular, it is *also*
> the negative counterpart of "both/and," which always takes
> plural.  The singular is generally preferred, however.
> 
> Your observation about the case of the verb agreeing
> with the closest noun is also correct, but after some
> consideration, in this case I'd go with the "both/and"
> loophole and use the plural verb just because it doesn't
> sound so weird.

By the way, a sentence involving "neither of us" has "neither" as the 
subject, just as "duke" is the subject in a sentence with "duke of 
earl," so you use whatever sounds/works best with neither, 
er, "neither."








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