On 28 Oct 2005 at 21:38, John Bell wrote: > On 28 Oct 2005, at 20:41, David W. Fenton wrote: > > > Can someone explain to me the musical circumstances in which a slur > > between layers makes any sense at all? > > > Piano LH has a line in layer 1 which continues in the next bar in RH > layer 2. That's just one example.
And it wouldn't work better with Voice1/Voice2? > > Seems to me that if layers are used to indicate individual voices, a > > slur from one voice to another makes little sense. > > But layers do not necessarily indicate voices -- they have no > inherent musical meaning at all. Then why use separate layers at all? Why use even Voice1/Voice2? Why not just use chords? Obviously, if the note values are not the same, it wouldn't work. But I still believe that too often people go for layers when V1/V2 would be much faster and easier to do, and wouldn't have the problem here with chords. Of course, there are exceptions where V1/V2 can't work, such as ties across a barline. But the number of such exceptions is very small, it seems to me. -- David W. Fenton http://www.bway.net/~dfenton David Fenton Associates http://www.bway.net/~dfassoc _______________________________________________ Finale mailing list [email protected] http://lists.shsu.edu/mailman/listinfo/finale
