On 28 Oct 2005 at 23:57, Owain Sutton wrote:

> David W. Fenton wrote:
> > On 28 Oct 2005 at 16:08, Darcy James Argue wrote:
> > 
> >>On 28 Oct 2005, at 3:41 PM, David W. Fenton wrote:
> >>
> >>>Can someone explain to me the musical circumstances in which a slur
> >>>between layers makes any sense at all?
> >>
> >>Well, for starters, the first measure might have two layers and the
> >>following measure only one. Happens all the time in piano music.
> > 
> > And why are Voice1/Voice2 not the correct solution, then? It's in
> > piano music that V1/V2 are most appropriate.
> > 
> (snip)
> 
> While you're right in the context of the example, it's wrong to say "I
> can't think of a situation where slurs between layers would make
> sense, therefore it's not necessary". . . .

Well, unless you're reading my mind, you can't say anything of the 
sort. It is indeed the case that *I* can't think of a situation where 
slurs between layers would make sense. I can construct hypothetical 
situations where layers have been used when they didn't need to be, 
but that's entirely my point -- layers aren't always the best way to 
noate the music.

> . . . I've had many situations when
> messing around with awkward aleatoric stuff where I'd have loved to
> have slurs behave properly between layers.  The 'musical
> circumstances' are not necessarily the driving factor in deciding
> which notes are in which layers.

What circumstances, then, drive the use of layers? You use layers 
when you have independent rhythms, and when you want stems going in 
different directions. Both of those indicate independent voices, so I 
think slurring from a note in one voice to a note in another one 
indicates sloppy notation, and the bug should be avoidable by using 
V1/V2, except for the cases where V1/V2 is more unwieldy than layers 
(and there certainly are such situations).

-- 
David W. Fenton                        http://www.bway.net/~dfenton
David Fenton Associates                http://www.bway.net/~dfassoc

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