On Feb 3, 2006, at 2:54 PM, dhbailey wrote:
That is my understanding. Rodgers and Hammerstein left their undying mark on music theory for generations of Americans.
David H. Bailey
Arkady wrote:
Dear Finale List, Can anyone point me to a good explanation on this topic, preferably with a
few web links: Si Do vs Ti Do? I grew up with Si, and never heard of Ti unTil:) I got to NYC from Ukraine.
Ever since, I never "accepted" Ti, but it seems like Julie Andrews has
won:)... But, jokes aside, am I to assume that there was no Ti in this world, unTil:)
they needed a rhyme in The Sound of Music?!
And, if Ti existed before The Sound of Music, how and why was it invented?
The use of Ti has been standard throughout the English-speaking world for more than 200 years. It was introduced as part of a reform of solmization making each syllable contain a single consonant, unique to that note, followed by a single vowel. Ti thus replaced Si because the letter S was already in use for So (which replaced the former Sol).
Rogers and Hammerstein have absolutely nothing to do with it.
Guido's original system only went as far as La. When it became necessary to add a 7th syllable, it was made Si, for "Sancte Iohannes"--the next line of the chant "Ut queant laxis" from which all the other syllables had been taken. (however "Sancte Johannes" does not in fact incorporate the note Si/Ti).
It should be noted, though, that of the veracular languages of Europe, only French continues to use the full set of orginal syllables, which were Ut Re Mi Fa Sol La [Si]. Anyone who wants to sneer at Ti must also, logically, sneer at Do[h].
Andrew Stiller
Kallisti Music Press
http://home.netcom.com/~kallisti/
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