On 1 Jun 2006 at 14:53, Johannes Gebauer wrote:

> But then why did Boccherini, and later Beethoven, specifically
> indicate "senza repetitione"? This is precisely the question, and we
> are now turning around in circles.

Well, why is it that sometime between 1770 and 1790, all composers 
started becoming substantially more specific in notating dynamics and 
articulations than they were before? Does the absence of the explicit 
performance indications mean that they played the music straight, 
with no dynamic changes and no contrasts of articulation? I don't 
believe so, but if you argue that the composers who explicitly 
specified no repeats were doing so because everybody before then 
played the repeats, then logically you'd have to argue that the 
missing dynamics and articulations were also not observed.

All we know is that for some reason, it began to be specified. My 
guess is that it began to be specified precisely because there was 
widespread difference of opinion on the standard practice and because 
composers in the 1790s and on no longer wanted to leave those kinds 
of choices up to their performers. So, they started specifying 
exactly what they wanted. That new specificity does not imply 
anything about the way the music was actually interpreted and 
performed before then -- it's only a change in the way composers felt 
about how specific their conceptions of the music were and what was 
necessary to notate to get the results they wanted. The notational 
specificity itself implies a narrowing of possibilities. 

And the specification of no repeats seems to me to indicate that 
composers no longer felt it was an optional item that could be left 
up to performer discretion.

And that's *all* it can be known to imply, as, logically speaking, we 
haven't enough information to know if it indicates anything more than 
that.

-- 
David W. Fenton                    http://dfenton.com
David Fenton Associates       http://dfenton.com/DFA/

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