Music Theory, maybe throughout history, is and was always a result of

analizing, closely watching at and listening to what other people

already *did*. A rule did not neccessarily apply to them, as theory

was always sort of later than the actual works theory dealt with. So

what is does is to afterwards find out why certain horizontal /

vertical elements of music actually sound good, for example. 
   
  We often seem to assume that theory follows practice, because to argue the 
reverse seems nonsensical, but perhaps the attitude or even the worldview which 
would give rise to theoretical treatises in the field of music as in many other 
fields became embedded in the practice of writing music from a certain point 
onwards to begin with and then this thesis makes no sense. On an anecdotical 
note, what about composers such as Hindemith and Messiaen who both wrote long 
theoretical treatises and started to compose from there? What about Schoenberg 
and Webern who’s theoretical work on polyphony (it was the topic of his 
doctoral dissertation) was enormously important for his compositional output? 
What about the theories of Boulez, Stockhausen and Xenakis? What about 
electronic music? In the cases where theory came ‘sort of later’, it would be 
interesting to know how much later and for which reasons. This is something 
that I am asking myself. I do not know when Bach became the prime
 example to study when talking about traditional counterpoint. We accept Bach’s 
‘rules’ now as the common rules of counterpoint (although Bach broke a lot of 
them). This is because Bach’s ‘rules’ make a lot of sense to us now, but maybe 
also because there were powerful interests behind it during the 19th Century? 
Because we all had to learn it? I do not know much about this, but I wish there 
was more interest in other important polyphonic composers, in Ockeghem for 
example, who I find unbelievably good. 
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