yes, but i'm talking about performance royalties. that is
mechanical (distribution) rights. although of course in some
languages royalties means essentially rights without specifications
as to WHAT rights and would have to be clarified in context.
Ah, but your question spoke to late 18th, early 19th century
practices. The terms you're now using are all 20th century.
quite possibly, yes probably; i meant i am interested in the payments
to composers for the performance of their works. any reference to
the topic would be appreciated, but based on literature around the
varying topics of patronage and development of the public concert it
would seem that this practice - paying composers for individual
performances of individual works - would have only begun in the time
of mozart through beethoven because of changing modes of social
structures and the shift from direct to indirect patronage to public
concerts. in most cases in this transition period (and later to
some extent) the payments to the composer (the more significant ones
anyways) would have come directly from the "extended royalty", the
ennobled class until the development of the "true" public concert in
the early-mid 1800s. i read that the first concert hall explicitly
built for music was 1830 in vienna...
[...] And of course those terms would have absolutely nothing to do
with Royalty.
that's what confuses me, and the OED hasn't really shed any light on
the situation.
--
shirling & neueweise ... new music publishers
mailto:[EMAIL PROTECTED] :.../ http://newmusicnotation.com
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