On 4 Feb 2011 at 20:50, dc wrote: > Does it make sense to break a beam after a clef change? Someone > suggested this for a better legibility, and I see the point, but don't > know if is permissible or not.
In general, a clef change is going to happen with a change of register, which will almost always correspond with a musical break, so in most cases, I'd think a beam break would correspond quite nicely to the musical phrasing. The exception would, I think, need something more than just an unbroken beam to indicate that there should be no articulation between the two notes. -- David W. Fenton http://dfenton.com David Fenton Associates http://dfenton.com/DFA/ _______________________________________________ Finale mailing list [email protected] http://lists.shsu.edu/mailman/listinfo/finale
