Thanks, I have gone with "1(a)...(c)" for now, but you are right, "1(a) to 1(c)" is more correct.
I do like that idea though Stuart, how about 1(a...c)? Cheers Alan On 18/12/2008, at 5:24 AM, Stuart Rogers wrote: > Alan Litchfield wrote: >> Quick off-topic question, >> If you have in a line of text something like "to any of 1 (a)-(c)", >> is this >> more correctly set as "to any of 1 (a)...(c)"? >> Cheers >> Alan > > I'd second Fei Min's suggestion of "to any of 1(a) to 1(c)," but > otherwise suggest: > "to any of 1 (a-c)" > where "-" is an en-dash. > > -- > Stuart Rogers > Technical Communicator > Phoenix Geophysics Limited > Toronto, ON, Canada > +1 (416) 491-7340 x 325 > > srogers phoenix-geophysics com > > "A man's screech should exceed his rasp, or what's a violin for?" > > --another Rogers Original -- Alan Litchfield MBus(Hons), MNZCS AlphaByte PO Box 1941, Auckland, NZ. 1140 http://www.alphabyte.co.nz
