Thanks,

I have gone with "1(a)...(c)" for now, but you are right, "1(a) to  
1(c)" is more correct.

I do like that idea though Stuart, how about 1(a...c)?

Cheers
Alan

On 18/12/2008, at 5:24 AM, Stuart Rogers wrote:

> Alan Litchfield wrote:
>> Quick off-topic question,
>> If you have in a line of text something like "to any of 1 (a)-(c)",  
>> is this
>> more correctly set as "to any of 1 (a)...(c)"?
>> Cheers
>> Alan
>
> I'd second Fei Min's suggestion of "to any of 1(a) to 1(c)," but  
> otherwise suggest:
> "to any of 1 (a-c)"
> where "-" is an en-dash.
>
> -- 
> Stuart Rogers
> Technical Communicator
> Phoenix Geophysics Limited
> Toronto, ON, Canada
> +1 (416) 491-7340 x 325
>
> srogers phoenix-geophysics com
>
> "A man's screech should exceed his rasp, or what's a violin for?"
>
> --another Rogers Original

--
Alan Litchfield MBus(Hons), MNZCS
AlphaByte
PO Box 1941, Auckland, NZ. 1140
http://www.alphabyte.co.nz




Reply via email to