I have a large stash of nonsense I could write that might be on topic.  But the 
topic coincides with an argument I had about 2 weeks ago.  My opponent said 
something generalizing about the use of statistics and I made a comment (I 
thought was funny, but apparently not) that I don't really know what statistics 
_is_.  I also made the mistake of claiming that I _do_ know what probability 
theory is. [sigh]  Fast forward through lots of nonsense to the gist:

My opponent claims that time (the experience of, the passage of, etc.) is 
required by probability theory.  He seemed to hinge his entire argument on the 
vernacular concept of an "event".  My argument was that, akin to the idea that 
we discover (rather than invent) math theorems, probability theory was all 
about counting -- or measurement.  So, it's all already there, including things 
like power sets.  There's no need for time to pass in order to measure the size 
of any given subset of the possibility space.

In any case, I'm a bit of a jerk, obviously.  So, I just assumed I was right 
and didn't look anything up.  But after this conversation here, I decided to 
spend lunch doing so.  And ran across the idea that probability is the forward 
map (given the generator, what phenomena will emerge?) and statistics is the 
inverse map (given the phenomena you see, what's the generator?).  And although 
neither of these really require time, per se, there is a definite role for 
[ir]reversibility or at least asymmetry.

So, does anyone here have an opinion on the ontological status of one or both 
probability and/or statistics?  Am I demonstrating my ignorance by suggesting 
the "events" we study in probability are not (identical to) the events we 
experience in space & time?


On 12/11/2016 11:31 PM, Nick Thompson wrote:
> Would the following work? 
> 
> */Imagine you enter a casino that has a thousand roulette tables.  The rumor 
> circulates around the casino that one of the wheels is loaded.  So, you call 
> up a thousand of your friends and you all work together to find the loaded 
> wheel.  Why, because if you use your knowledge to play that wheel you will 
> make a LOT of money.  Now the problem you all face, of course, is that a run 
> of successes is not an infallible sign of a loaded wheel.  In fact, given 
> randomness, it is assured that with a thousand players playing a thousand 
> wheels as fast as they can, there will be random long runs of successes.  But 
> the longer a run of success continues, the greater is the probability that 
> the wheel that produces those successes is biased.  So, your team of players 
> would be paid, on this account, for beginning to focus its play on those 
> wheels with the longest runs. /*
> 
>  
> 
> FWIW, this, I think, is Peirce’s model of scientific induction. 

-- 
☣ glen

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