Circling back to things I missed. This has always irritated me. What, pragmatically, is the difference between property and "the means of production"? Sure, I know there's a body of mental gymnastics surrounding the difference. But it strikes me as an arbitrary distinction. Any privately owned *thing* can be included in the means of production. It's a difference of degree, not kind. Owning 1 screw driver gives you a little production potential. Owning a million of them gives you lots of production potential (though, admittedly, the scaling isn't linear).
So, what pragmatic reason is there to make the distinction you make here? On 11/6/19 4:08 PM, Steven A Smith wrote: > Glen loosely defines capitalism as *private ownership of property* but i want > to further refine it to be private ownership of *the means of production*, ... -- ☣ uǝlƃ ============================================================ FRIAM Applied Complexity Group listserv Meets Fridays 9a-11:30 at cafe at St. John's College to unsubscribe http://redfish.com/mailman/listinfo/friam_redfish.com archives back to 2003: http://friam.471366.n2.nabble.com/ FRIAM-COMIC http://friam-comic.blogspot.com/ by Dr. Strangelove
