Raul Miller wrote:
> On 6/29/07, John Randall <[EMAIL PROTECTED]> wrote:

>   But I believe n(\sigma^2/n) is \sigma^2 and I cannot find any
>   interpretation of $E(S^2)=(1/n-1)(n\sigma^2 -(\sigma^2)) that
>   seems numerically valid.
> ...
This is a statement about the expected value of a random variable.  You
cannot numerically validate it except in cases where the sample space is
finite and you know the distribution.  However, the above statement is
asserting that S^2 is an unbiased estimator of \sigma^2 for any
distribution.

.
>
>   It seems to me that \sigma^2(X_i) is 0.25 which means I should expect
>   that \sigma^2/n is 0.125.  But from previous calculations, I expect that
>   \sigma^2(bar X) is 0.125 which means that either I have woefully
>   misunderstood some of the notation, or that the assertion
>     $\sigma^2(\bar X)=\sigma^2/n$
>
>   must be false.

Your calculations seem entirely consistent.  What is the problem.

>> >> What is a sample which does not represent the population?
>> >
>> > The issue seems to be completeness.
>> >
>> > The "unbiased" estimator traditionally gets used when dealing with
>> > variance for a sample which is not identical to the population.  In
>> > other words, if there's any possibility that the distribution of the
>> > sample is different from the distribution of the population, it seems
>> > to be traditional to use the "unbiased estimator" (n/n-1 when
>> determining
>> > RMS deviation rather than the "biased estimator" of 1 when determining
>> > RMS deviation).
>>
>> I don't understand this.  A random sample is defined to be a list of
>> independent random variables each with the same distribution as the
>> population.  What does "a sample which is not identical to the
>> population"
>> mean?
>
> The distribution of the random variables which were used to generate
> the sample is not, in the general case, the same as the distribution
> of an instance of a sample.
>
> For example, let's consider our simple case: we count the number
> of times "heads" comes up, when we  flip a fair coin.
>
> The distribution of the population is:
>    0: 50%
>    1: 50%
>
> However, any single random sample containing three values
> cannot represent this distribution.  The potential samples are:
>    0 0 0   (0: 100%,  1: 0%)
>    0 0 1   (0: 66.67% 1: 33.33%)
> etc.
>

A single random variable containing one value can "represent" this
population:
counting the number of heads when we flip a coin is precisely this.  A
particular random sample just has some distribution: in this way it is
representative of the population.

Best wishes,

John


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