On 3/9/21 12:21 PM, Daffy Duck wrote:
Ok, I think I have it working now.

So, the better way to look at the discounted situation in my case was
"renegotiated accounts" because I want to pay expenses prior to income.

Not sure I'm following here. Let's take this one step at a time.

First, I thought you had two separate cases: 1) a bad debt, 2) a discount you wanted to offer after issuing an invoice. Is this not correct? (the AFDA account is for case #1, the Credit Note is for case #2)

Second, What do your own expenses, and when you pay them, have to do with giving a discount to a customer after you've invoiced them?

So, I created a new asset account called "renegotiated accounts" and
paid the outstanding invoices for this individual from that.

I then created a new invoice for the new amount, separating reimbursed
expenses from income.  On the new invoice, the transfer account is
"renegotiated accounts."

This is starting to sound more complicated than the initial post. That's fine, but please be clear about what you are trying to accomplish.

What do reimbursed expenses have to do with the discount situation?

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My personal rule of thumb is to *always* try to create transactions that describe the real-world events, in the same order they occurred. That keeps me out of trouble trying to finagle something weird just to make the math work. The math will work if I enter what really happened.

Regards,
Adrien

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