On Feb 3, 2013, at 12:30 PM, Santosh Helekar <[email protected]> wrote:
The above speculation is without foundation. The reports about Portuguese Goa started to emanate from British India almost from the inception of The Bombay Times and Commerce Journal, the precursor of Times of India in 1838 COMMENT: even in news reports, there is a difference between oranges and apples. I believe that IF one looks at the date 1890, one comes across two issues (a) news reports in the British Indian press about public disturbances in Portuguese Goa (b) the British Ultimatum to Portugal. Is it that foundation-less to speculate a possible connection? Really ? The press has never been "utilized" by governments? Considering the issues involving the 1890 Ultimatum, are we sure that the British-India press and correspondents were neutral? In any event, I have committed myself to reviewing the posts that Santoshbab has kindly fwded to me. Over the next few weeks, I hope to also read additional material - limited as the available resources may be. I will then try come up with a non-historian's analysis. All and sundry are then welcome to critique it. You may also critique me before I start. I will avoid splitting hairs or otherwise dissecting the title given to this thread. I will however ask myself this question: When there is public disorder and the Govt orders the police to maintain public order and the police fire rounds, and deaths occur .... Does it mean that the Govt "ordered the killings"? It is only a personal "men's rea" question I have asked myself. jc
