In your cases with 10 diamonds, you have probabilities of 1/16, 4/16, 6/16, 4/16, and 1/16 of being in the respective cases. To get to the first case with 11 diamonds, if you are in the 1/16 case, you will always go there, and in the 4/16 case, you will go there half the time, so the correct probability for this case is 1/16 + (4/16)/2 = 6/32.
On Sat, May 4, 2013 at 9:20 PM, Betlista <[email protected]> wrote: > Hello programmers, > > I have question to correct answer for test case > > 11 1 3 > > for round 1B, problem B ( > https://code.google.com/codejam/contest/2434486/dashboard#s=p1). > > It seems that accepted answer is 6/32 = 0.1875 but according to my > understanding the correct answer is 5/30 = 0.166666667. > > I draw all possibilities - http://i.imgur.com/DF6QL2u.png > > Please can someone corrct me and show me where I'm wrong? > > Thanks > Betlista > > -- > You received this message because you are subscribed to the Google Groups > "Google Code Jam" group. > To unsubscribe from this group and stop receiving emails from it, send an > email to [email protected]. > To post to this group, send email to [email protected]. > To view this discussion on the web visit > https://groups.google.com/d/msg/google-code/-/iH3WsVU9D9kJ. > For more options, visit https://groups.google.com/groups/opt_out. > > > -- You received this message because you are subscribed to the Google Groups "Google Code Jam" group. To unsubscribe from this group and stop receiving emails from it, send an email to [email protected]. To post to this group, send email to [email protected]. For more options, visit https://groups.google.com/groups/opt_out.
