But that would say there are 32 possibilities, but as drawn, there are only 30.

>From first case for N=10, you go to the first case in N=11 in all cases, 
>because the diamond have to slide to the right...

Dňa nedeľa, 5. mája 2013 5:33:09 UTC+2 /dev/joe napísal(-a):
> In your cases with 10 diamonds, you have probabilities of 1/16, 4/16, 6/16, 
> 4/16, and 1/16 of being in the respective cases. To get to the first case 
> with 11 diamonds, if you are in the 1/16 case, you will always go there, and 
> in the  4/16 case, you will go there half the time, so the correct 
> probability for this case is 1/16 + (4/16)/2 = 6/32.
> 
> 
> 
> 
> 
> 
> On Sat, May 4, 2013 at 9:20 PM, Betlista <[email protected]> wrote:
> 
> Hello programmers,
> 
> 
> 
> I have question to correct answer for test case
> 
> 
> 
> 11 1 3
> 
> 
> 
> for round 1B, problem B 
> (https://code.google.com/codejam/contest/2434486/dashboard#s=p1).
> 
> 
> 
> It seems that accepted answer is 6/32 = 0.1875 but according to my 
> understanding the correct answer is 5/30 = 0.166666667.
> 
> 
> 
> I draw all possibilities - http://i.imgur.com/DF6QL2u.png
> 
> 
> 
> Please can someone corrct me and show me where I'm wrong?
> 
> 
> 
> Thanks
> 
> Betlista
> 
> 
> 
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