On Oct 25, 12:46 am, "Thor (Google Employee)" <[email protected]> wrote: > So if the base map data disagrees with the stored > geocode you have for a particular address, and you place a marker on > the map to identify an address as being in the location given by the > old data, you are using the old data without attribution.
It strikes me that if I want to display a marker at an address and find its location by geocoding, I have a location. If that location differs in the new data, and it's now wrong, I can choose whether to use the new place or the location I know to be correct. With "pre-found" points, we may well already know they are accurate. Why risk getting it wrong? This doesn't apply to new addresses, where we have no choice but to use the new data. But if we're finding known addresses in advance, like we're supposed to, we may well wish to correct inaccurate geocodes. Who owns that corrected data? It's entirely possible that the location we correct the geocode to exactly matches the previous provider's data, isn't it? Andrew --~--~---------~--~----~------------~-------~--~----~ You received this message because you are subscribed to the Google Groups "Google Maps API" group. To post to this group, send email to [email protected] To unsubscribe from this group, send email to [email protected] For more options, visit this group at http://groups.google.com/group/google-maps-api?hl=en -~----------~----~----~----~------~----~------~--~---
