The only possible situation that comes to mind is if the location of a
*street* has been changed because it was erroneous, and therefore all
addresses on that street have changed their lat/lon as well, but
still, that has nothing to do with "attributions", does it?
By "attributions" I understand the copyright notices displayed at the
bottom of the map.

@Thor: Should this be the case, could you please point out some
specific areas where this may be visible?

--
Marcelo - http://maps.forum.nu
--



On Oct 25, 8:23 am, Andrew Leach <[email protected]>
wrote:
> On Oct 25, 12:46 am, "Thor (Google Employee)"
>
> <[email protected]> wrote:
> >  So if the base map data disagrees with the stored
> > geocode you have for a particular address, and you place a marker on
> > the map to identify an address as being in the location given by the
> > old data, you are using the old data without attribution.
>
> It strikes me that if I want to display a marker at an address and
> find its location by geocoding, I have a location. If that location
> differs in the new data, and it's now wrong, I can choose whether to
> use the new place or the location I know to be correct.
>
> With "pre-found" points, we may well already know they are accurate.
> Why risk getting it wrong?
>
> This doesn't apply to new addresses, where we have no choice but to
> use the new data. But if we're finding known addresses in advance,
> like we're supposed to, we may well wish to correct inaccurate
> geocodes. Who owns that corrected data? It's entirely possible that
> the location we correct the geocode to exactly matches the previous
> provider's data, isn't it?
>
> Andrew
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