Dear all, I am analyzing the latency structure of some of the HCP resting-state fMRI data and I want to make sure that this makes sense, given that no slice-timing correction has been applied to the data. I would appreciate it if someone could confirm that the following reasoning is correct:
Since the entire brain is scanned in 0.78 seconds (one sample), it does no make sense to analyze signals latencies < 1 sample, because such small latencies will be distorted. In particular, it does not make sense to interpolate the cross-covariance functions as done in one of Mitra's papers). However, latencies > 1 sample are distorted only by an amount of < 1 sample and they can hence be analyzed. So, for example, if two signals have a latency of 10 samples, the true latency lies between 9 and 11 samples (assumed that the latency is accurately estimated). Thanks and kind regards, Rikkert Hindriks _______________________________________________ HCP-Users mailing list [email protected] http://lists.humanconnectome.org/mailman/listinfo/hcp-users
