%% "Robert P. J. Day" <[EMAIL PROTECTED]> writes:
rpjd> ok, i've just run across something that is confusing the heck
rpjd> out of me. in testing the snippet in the make manual for
rpjd> overriding part of another makefile, i wrote the following
rpjd> makefile:
rpjd> $ cat mk1
rpjd> foo:
rpjd> @echo building foo in mk1.
rpjd> @touch foo
rpjd> %: force
rpjd> @echo Invoking makefile mk2 for target [EMAIL PROTECTED]
rpjd> @${MAKE} -f mk2 $@
rpjd> force: ;
rpjd> i also have a trivial "mk2" file, but what's baffling is what happens
rpjd> when i run the following command:
rpjd> $ make -f mk1 foo
rpjd> Invoking makefile mk2 for target mk1. ???? what the ... ????
rpjd> how is it that the value of the "-f" option is being picked up
rpjd> as a *target* to be processed in that first makefile mk1? i'm
rpjd> confused. am i doing something thoroughly stupid here? i have
rpjd> no idea how to interpret this output.
Check the GNU make manual section "How Makefiles Are Remade" in the
chapter on "Writing Makefiles".
--
-------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Paul D. Smith <[EMAIL PROTECTED]> Find some GNU make tips at:
http://www.gnu.org http://make.paulandlesley.org
"Please remain calm...I may be mad, but I am a professional." --Mad Scientist
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