>For example, we can easily objectively say if something is out of >tune by measuring it.
Is this really true? It has long seemed to me that being in tune with other instruments is not an absolute, but depends on the overtones of the notes played, and the relative strengths of those overtones (i.e., on the tone qualities). For example, two horns may play two notes a fifth apart so that the fundamental frequencies are in exactly a 3:2 ratio, but the pitches of some of the overtones on the two instruments may differ very slightly, so the notes are in tune and yet slightly out of tune at the same time. That may be why sections using the same make of horn, or at least similar bell throat sizes, can sometimes blend more easily than mixed sections. I admit I have no scientific (objective) basis for the above -- that is, I haven't made any measurements. I would like to hear from others who agree or disagree, and in particular from acousticians who may have made such measurements. Chris Earnest _______________________________________________ post: [email protected] unsubscribe or set options at https://pegasus.memphis.edu/cgi-bin/mailman/options/horn/archive%40jab.org
