On Sat, Oct 17, 2009 at 06:47, <[email protected]> wrote: > Yes. If a sound sample can be measured one can objectively measure any and > all differences between them. > > -William >
Yes, you can measure them objectively but there's a lot more going on than just measuring things. Psychoacoustics is a big field of study for a reason. A popular example: an interval of perfectly tuned multiple octaves will sound too small to us. The meter will say the ratio is exactly 16:1 or 32:1 but our ears and mind will scream "Out of tune!!!!" Michiel _______________________________________________ post: [email protected] unsubscribe or set options at https://pegasus.memphis.edu/cgi-bin/mailman/options/horn/archive%40jab.org
