If I recall correctly, the COND= on steps in a called PROC will take on the
COND= value of the COND statement on the EXEC card.  In your case,
COND=(1,LT) will replace all of the COND=(0,LT) that exist in the PROC in
the PROCLIB.

Does this make sense?

-----Original Message-----
From: IBM Mainframe Discussion List [mailto:[EMAIL PROTECTED] On Behalf
Of Chase, John
Sent: Thursday, June 09, 2005 11:18 AM
To: [email protected]
Subject: JCL COND= processing

Hi, All,

Got a little puzzle here we can't seem to figure out.  A batch job consists
of three jobsteps, each of which invokes a multi-step PROC.  Example:

//JOBNAME  JOB ...
//STEP01   EXEC PROC1
//STEP02   EXEC PROC2,COND=(0,LT)
//STEP03   EXEC PROC3,COND=(1,LT)

Each PROC is structured the same, with the same COND on each procstep:

//PROCn   PROC
//PSTEP1  EXEC PGM=PROGn1,COND=(0,LT)
//PSTEP2  EXEC PGM=PROGn2,COND=(0,LT)
//PSTEP3  EXEC PGM=PROGn3,COND=(0,LT)
//....

Jobsteps 1 and 2 complete with RC=0, as does each procstep in PROC1 and
PROC2.

Jobstep 3, procstep 1 completes with RC=1 or higher, and the programmer
expects the remainder of the job to be flushed; but all remaining procsteps
are executed.  The job finally abends S0C7 in a later procstep because a
dataset that was intended to be populated in the first procstep is either
empty or non-existent.

The puzzle:  Why is the remainder of PROC3 executed when its first procstep
produces RC>0?

TIA,

    -jc-

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