On Sat, 21 Oct 2006 16:30:59 +0000, john gilmore <[EMAIL PROTECTED]> wrote:
> 
> More important, it is in logic a universal negative; and it can be proved
> that no instance of an universal negative can be proved.
> 
Hmmm.  So there is a proof that no proof of a universal negative can exist.
This appears to verge on self-contradiction.

But I'll readily accept that axiomatic proofs of universal negatives can
exist, but not empirical proofs.

Or, are you dealing in something similar to FOPC, where proofs themselves
are not elements of the universe of discourse?

-- gil
-- 
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