On Thu, 4 May 2017 22:56:47 -0500, Joel C. Ewing <[email protected]> wrote:
>On 05/02/2017 05:15 PM, Mark Zelden wrote: >> On Wed, 3 May 2017 00:05:31 +0200, R.S. <[email protected]> >> wrote: >> >>> The topic was discussed recently, but I haven't found in the listserv >>> archives an answer to the following question: >>> >>> Let's assume >>> TIME in JOBCLASS definition is 60 >>> TIME in JOB statement is 90 >>> TIME in EXEC statement is 80 >>> (single step job) >>> >>> What is effective time limit for the step? >>> My understanding: STEP statement overrides jobclass definition, JOB >>> definition is ignored in that case. >>> So, the answer is 80. >>> >>> Am I right? >>> >> Yes, you are correct. Unlike most JCL keywords, the STEP value is not an >> override for the JOB value. The 90 seconds for the JOB is cumulative for the >> entire time - but the step limit is 80. >> >> Regards, >> >> Mark >> -- >Provided of course that previous steps in the JOB have not already used >more than 10 seconds of CPU time. If that were the case, then the >portion of the remaining cumulative time for the job would be less than >80 seconds and the remaining job time limit would be reached before the >step time limit. > JC Ewing > Yes. That is why I wanted to point out that the job value is the cumulative time for all steps. He did write in his assumptions that this was a single step job. Being pedantic, the step time limit is still 80 regardless, which was his question. The question wasn't "will the step abend after 80 seconds of CPU time?". Regards, Mark -- Mark Zelden - Zelden Consulting Services - z/OS, OS/390 and MVS ITIL v3 Foundation Certified mailto:[email protected] Mark's MVS Utilities: http://www.mzelden.com/mvsutil.html Systems Programming expert at http://search390.techtarget.com/ateExperts/ ---------------------------------------------------------------------- For IBM-MAIN subscribe / signoff / archive access instructions, send email to [email protected] with the message: INFO IBM-MAIN
