Well, I am not sure it is invalid. My code works. But my current MBean
code does not do any thread synchronization calls, or an exec(), or calls
that would violate EJB rules. I really want to look at the MBean server
code further. Otherwise I am just speculating which is silly. However, it
strikes me that regardless of the fact that the MBean is using a different
classloader than the EJB that calls it, the thread is the same. So
wouldn't that be the same thing as having made those calls inside the
EJB? I just don't understand what the MBean mechanism is that allows those
calls to be made, especially when the MBean might be blocking the EJB
thread while it does its work. [Violating above silly rule.] Perhaps it
blocks the thread you invoke on, and re-dispatches the request on another
thread. I don't know. I am about to write an MBean that does do an
exec(), so I guess I will find out. If you find something out, please let
me know.
Fred.
At 02:02 AM 9/20/2001, you wrote:
> > I did not realize that you have to invoke all operations of the MBean(s)
> > within an MBean server via the server object using an invoke() method. I
> > wasn't doing this. Since I was obtaining a reference to the MBean object
> > via JNDI, I had the actual object and was merely directly calling the
> > methods on the object.
>
>I have done this as well. Why do you think this method is invalid?
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