It does not matter whether you call an MBean directly or through the
MBeabServer
from an EJB. If it blocks the EJB thread while working this is no different
than
the EJB making an RMI call.
----- Original Message -----
From: "Frederick N. Brier" <[EMAIL PROTECTED]>
To: <[EMAIL PROTECTED]>
Sent: Thursday, September 20, 2001 7:09 AM
Subject: Re: SV: [JBoss-user] How to obtain the reference of a MBean?
> Well, I am not sure it is invalid. My code works. But my current MBean
> code does not do any thread synchronization calls, or an exec(), or calls
> that would violate EJB rules. I really want to look at the MBean server
> code further. Otherwise I am just speculating which is silly. However,
it
> strikes me that regardless of the fact that the MBean is using a different
> classloader than the EJB that calls it, the thread is the same. So
> wouldn't that be the same thing as having made those calls inside the
> EJB? I just don't understand what the MBean mechanism is that allows
those
> calls to be made, especially when the MBean might be blocking the EJB
> thread while it does its work. [Violating above silly rule.] Perhaps it
> blocks the thread you invoke on, and re-dispatches the request on another
> thread. I don't know. I am about to write an MBean that does do an
> exec(), so I guess I will find out. If you find something out, please let
> me know.
>
> Fred.
>
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