I guess what I'm trying to say is that your answer makes sense for continuous functions, while mine has jumps of 2\pi, and so the phase change is equal to the total number of these jumps (times 2\pi). Does this make sense?
On Wednesday, February 4, 2015 at 11:36:51 AM UTC+1, Andrei Berceanu wrote: > > Sorry, perhaps I did not explain myself :) > One can see the phase oscillates between -\pi and \pi. > I would like to compute how many times the phase changes by 2\pi as one > goes around the origin. > > On Wednesday, February 4, 2015 at 1:31:53 AM UTC+1, Steven G. Johnson > wrote: >> >> >> >> On Tuesday, February 3, 2015 at 1:17:15 PM UTC-5, Andrei Berceanu wrote: >> >>> How can I numerically compute the total change in phase as one goes >>> around a closed loop centered on the site $m=n=0$? >>> >> >> Seems like >> >> totalchangeinphase(m,n) = 0 >> >> would work and be very efficient. (As you described your problem, your >> phase sounds like a single-valued function of m & n, hence the total change >> around any closed loop would be zero. Unless you mean something different >> by "total change"?) >> >
