Hi!
I've read up on the valuation function, but it doesn't seem to behave the
way the documentation is describing it.
I have this for example:
P 2016-01-01 £ 1.2 $
P 2016-01-05 £ 1.4 $
2016-01-03
SomeAsset £ -100
SomeExpense £ 100
Now, running ledger balance -X $ gives me
$ -140 SomeAsset
$ 140 SomeExpense
Just as the documentation mentions, I don't want the expense to be
re-valuated to $140 on the fifth; I want it to remain $120, which was the
price is $ at the time of the purchase. So, to quote the docs:
*Or how about never re-valuating commodities used in Expenses, since they
cannot have a different future value:*
*= /^Expenses:/*
* ; VALUE:: market(amount, post.date, exchange)*
*This says the future valuation is the same as the valuation at the time of
posting. post.date equals the posting’s date, while just ’date’ is the
value of --now DATE (defaults to today).*
Ok, so I try this inline, to make it as simple as possible:
P 2016-01-01 £ 1.2 $
P 2016-01-05 £ 1.4 $
2016-01-03
SomeAsset £ -100
SomeExpense £ 100; VALUE:: market(amount, post.date, exchange)
Now running ledger balance -X $ gives me:
$ -140 SomeAsset
$ 12000 SomeExpense
The expense has clearly been computed using 1.2 rather than 1.4, which is
what I wanted, but it's 100 times too large! Why? I've been fiddling with
this for quite a while now and can't understand what is going on.
Thanks you all!
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