Were you able to find a workaround for this? I am running into the same 
issues with this use case.

On Thursday, 10 March 2016 08:22:39 UTC-5, Jakob Mattsson wrote:
>
> Hi!
>
> I've read up on the valuation function, but it doesn't seem to behave the 
> way the documentation is describing it.
>
> I have this for example:
>
> P 2016-01-01 £ 1.2 $
> P 2016-01-05 £ 1.4 $
>
> 2016-01-03
>     SomeAsset      £ -100
>     SomeExpense    £  100
>
> Now, running ledger balance -X $ gives me 
>
> $ -140  SomeAsset
>
> $  140  SomeExpense
>
>
> Just as the documentation mentions, I don't want the expense to be 
> re-valuated to $140 on the fifth; I want it to remain $120, which was the 
> price is $ at the time of the purchase. So, to quote the docs: 
>
>
> *Or how about never re-valuating commodities used in Expenses, since they 
> cannot have a different future value:*
>
> *= /^Expenses:/*
>
> *    ; VALUE:: market(amount, post.date, exchange)*
>
> *This says the future valuation is the same as the valuation at the time 
> of posting. post.date equals the posting’s date, while just ’date’ is the 
> value of --now DATE (defaults to today).*
>
>
>
> Ok, so I try this inline, to make it as simple as possible:
>
> P 2016-01-01 £ 1.2 $
> P 2016-01-05 £ 1.4 $
>
> 2016-01-03
>     SomeAsset      £ -100
>     SomeExpense    £  100; VALUE:: market(amount, post.date, exchange)
>
> Now running ledger balance -X $ gives me:
>
> $  -140  SomeAsset
>
> $ 12000  SomeExpense
>
> The expense has clearly been computed using 1.2 rather than 1.4, which is 
> what I wanted, but it's 100 times too large! Why? I've been fiddling with 
> this for quite a while now and can't understand what is going on.
>
> Thanks you all!
>
>

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