On Wed, Jan 18, 2017, at 01:01 PM, [email protected] wrote:

> Hello,

> 

> I love my plaintext accounting, but I've finally come across a problem
> that I don't even know how to approach...
> 

> I get a really good work perk, where I have an allowance of £1000 to
> buy clothes at a discount of 50%. The allowance is based on the RRP of
> the item of clothing, so for example:
>
>  1. I have a £1000 allowance.
>  2. I want a £40 shirt.
>  3. I pay £20 in store.
>  4. My allowance is reduced by £40, leaving £960 remaining.
> I modelled this in ledger by putting transactions for the amount I
> paid - i.e. £20 for the shirt:
> 

> 

> 2017/01/18 * My Shirt

>    Expenses:Purchase
>    £20
>    Assets:Allowance

> 

> 

> I then had an expression which added any Purchase to a second Discount
> balance, and removed that from my allowance:
> 

> 

> = Purchase

>     Expenses:Discount
>     (amount)
>     Assets:Allowance
>     (-amount)
> 

> 

> This works fine. 

> 

> My issue is that my company have now changed the policy to be even
> more generous (unheard of right)! They now give me an allowance of
> £1000 to buy at 50% discount, followed by a further £2500 at a 25%
> discount. Once the first £1000 allowance is finished, the second £2500
> allowance begins.
> 

> Does anyone have any good solutions of how to model this? Ideally, I'd
> like ledger to work out for me what discounts apply where, rather than
> do it by hand... I figured I'd need to start inputting the full RRP in
> the Expenses:Purchase transaction, followed by an expression which
> checks the remaining balances, but I don't know how to do that?


I like the idea of putting in the full purchase price as it more
accurately reflects your spending, but that is just my opinion :).  I
don't know of a way to do this directly as you've indicated.  It seems
like having two accounts would work, or using a time on your automatic
transaction for when you know you run out of 50% money.


regards,



bex

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