Hi, Jay.
Thanks for answering (comment below):
>
> At 11:36 AM 8/5/99 , [EMAIL PROTECTED] wrote:
> >Jay,
> >
> >You wrote:
> >>
> >> See the rest of the story at:
> >>
> >>
> >http://www.heise.de/tp/english/inhalt/te/5139/1.html
> >
> >
> >Would you qualify the article as "objective" or "biased"?
>
>
> Hi Roberto,
>
> I believe I have already answered
> this question for you:
>
> Jay.
>
>
> At 12:38 PM 7/20/99 , Jay Fenello wrote:
> >Hi Roberto,
> >
> >Thank you for asking.
> >
> >Media bias is not something that is inherent in
> >any one article, any more than the effectiveness
> >of an advertising campaign is inherent in any
> >single advertisement. And even if a news source
> >covers all sides of an issue, that does not mean
> >that it is not biased.
> >
> >Media bias comes into play when one particular
> >point of view is presented repeatedly, with a
> >larger distribution, and broader coverage, than
> >another.
>
I understand your POV, and, to a certain extent, I share it.
The problem I see is that, if we bring this to the extreme consequences, a
single article with false assertion cannot be called "biased" unless it is
part of a campaign of press asserting the same thing.
I find this too restrictive.
Regards
Roberto
P.S.: the reference to press making false assertions is just a hypothesis,
and is in no way related to the quoted article, who only expresses opinions.
