I agree. But if they’re redirecting all the traffic to a specific MAC address (which they say are - the firewall I have has to be registered) I guess you could, in theory, do some L2 voodoo and make it work.
The email from the support tech earlier this week: > The usable IP range and gateway IP will depend on your firewall setup, for > example if you were to use a 1-to-1 NAT to internal IP addresses for each > public IP, you would be able to use every address in the range. And I wouldn’t believe it except that when I ping the Network address (.16) from my existing ISP (Comcast) it shows up on the firewall as traffic. > On Jun 27, 2015, at 9:47 PM, Chris Bagnall <[email protected]> wrote: > > On 28 Jun 2015, at 03:35, Ryan Coleman <[email protected]> wrote: >> The ISP has actually stated otherwise, which is the reason I brought it up. > > That’s a new one on me. If you get that working, I’d be fascinated to hear > how - it seems to go against the basics of IP networks. > > Kind regards, > > Chris > -- > C.M. Bagnall > This email is made from 100% recycled electrons > > _______________________________________________ > pfSense mailing list > https://lists.pfsense.org/mailman/listinfo/list > Support the project with Gold! https://pfsense.org/gold _______________________________________________ pfSense mailing list https://lists.pfsense.org/mailman/listinfo/list Support the project with Gold! https://pfsense.org/gold
