On 01/27/2014 09:24 PM, David Gerard wrote:
> Yes, it may create a copyright violation - but it still doesn't
> implicitly constitute a release under the licence. - d. 

Why not? What are you basing this opinion on?

Arguably, if one writes code for a GPL-licensed software, then send that
code to a remote repository, that counts as distribution or propagation
of the code. Thus, any claim that this code is not under GPL would
inherently be invalid, as any such claim would be in violation of the
license which the contributor has implicitly agreed to by modifying and
propagating modified code.

Do you know of any case law or legal precedent that would prove my
stance false? I'd seriously like to know.


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