On 27 January 2014 19:52, Vesa <[email protected]> wrote:
> On 01/27/2014 09:24 PM, David Gerard wrote:
>> Yes, it may create a copyright violation - but it still doesn't
>> implicitly constitute a release under the licence. - d.

> Why not? What are you basing this opinion on?
> Arguably, if one writes code for a GPL-licensed software, then send that
> code to a remote repository, that counts as distribution or propagation
> of the code. Thus, any claim that this code is not under GPL would
> inherently be invalid, as any such claim would be in violation of the
> license which the contributor has implicitly agreed to by modifying and
> propagating modified code.
> Do you know of any case law or legal precedent that would prove my
> stance false? I'd seriously like to know.


When the SFLC sues someone for GPL violation, note that they don't say
"ahahaha, your contribution is now automatically GPL" - they say "you
have violated copyright, we will settle for you releasing your
contribution under GPL". This is also pretty much the situation you
are describing. I presume the SFLC count as experts in such matters.


- d.

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