> This thread started in reference to the possibility of medieval luthiers
> making/using wire strings for _harps_. Since the harp strings are not stopped
> (except on rare occasions), would the string need to be perfectly true? Also,
> in a case like this, we're not talking about kms of uniform wire, but perhaps
> a meter at most.
> Of course, Middle Eastern and Indian instruments had wire strings; where did
> they come from?
> Later on someone had to be making decent bronze (or silver?) wire in Europe to
> fit out those citterns, orpharions and bandoras.
> Leonard Williams
Extremely ductile metals like gold and silver could be beaten into textile
grade wire since Biblical times. Musical strings have to be a lot harder,
and require harder metals like bronze (copper is too ductile).
Drawing bronze into wire started in Europe in the 14th century (1300's),
i.e. before citterns and orpharions came into being.
My understanding is that music grade brass wasn't made until 1700 due to the
difficulties in obtaining pure zinc until then.
The earliest surviving Celtic harp ("Brian Boru's")is from the 15th century,
and the first non-anecdotal evidence of wire strings on harps is from 1507
(clarsach vs. harpsach).
Having said that:
All this DOES NOT PRECLUDE GUT-WIRE COMBINATION rather early, as weaving
textile grade wire into gut is absolutely conceivable, and this is probably
what Gerardus Cambrensis saw in Ireland in the 12th century.
It is just that PURE METAL HARP STRINGS BEFORE 1300 is just BRARNEY GALORE.
RT
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