Hi,

   I am using an Ergoplay for the lute too, which seems the most
   comfortable option for myself at least.

   But I would mainly like to ask a question to the community which I have
   not been able to resolve yet. It is often stressed that the lute is a
   descendant of the Arabian oud, thus it comes from the Arabian culture
   like much of our early science etc. As I have learned, flamenco has
   heavily been influenced by the Arabs too. However, much of the
   characteristics of Arabian music like diverse modi with 1/4 etc.
   intervals seems not to have been of much influence on early and
   later occidental music. Might the reason be that the diatonic systems
   were already so strong? I have actually no idea, only that question,
   which one might expand to the question how occidental music, and in
   particular lute music, was and was not influenced by oriental music,
   and why.

   Franz

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