This question cannot be resolved, in large part because it is based on at
least 4 fallacies:
1. Lute is a descendant of Oud.
2. Oud is Arabic.
3. Our early science is owed to Arabs.
4. Diatonic system is an exclusively Occidental thing.
RT
From: "Franz Mechsner" <[email protected]>
But I would mainly like to ask a question to the community which I have
not been able to resolve yet. It is often stressed that the lute is a
descendant of the Arabian oud, thus it comes from the Arabian culture
like much of our early science etc. As I have learned, flamenco has
heavily been influenced by the Arabs too. However, much of the
characteristics of Arabian music like diverse modi with 1/4 etc.
intervals seems not to have been of much influence on early and
later occidental music. Might the reason be that the diatonic systems
were already so strong? I have actually no idea, only that question,
which one might expand to the question how occidental music, and in
particular lute music, was and was not influenced by oriental music,
and why.
Franz
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