Hello, all - I just had a situation that really, really bothered me.
In the sparse documentation that I could find regarding the assignment of subnet masks to Virtual IPs, the synopsis was that the lease specific the netmask was for that Virtual IP, the less of a chance that the Real Server (In this case, Win2k3R2 w/IIS) would be confused with outbound routing. The situation was basically that I could see requests coming inbound (as indicated by ipvsadmin -L --connection) nothing the SYN_RECV flag, but nothing outbound. This led be to believe that simply put, the virtual IP was not working. To add some more kerosene to the fire, the request was coming from an IP in the same class A subnet as my Virtual IP. As that relates to the issue, I do now understand. However, what I'm still a bit fuzzy on is exactly how the Virtual IP netmask relates to the Virtual IP. In the general sense I take away from the picture that it may not matter, but it just might. Is this due to the type of Real Server and how it handles connections? The subnet from which the requests originates? I'm confused. Thanks again for your time, I sincerely appreciate it. Thanks -dant _______________________________________________ LinuxVirtualServer.org mailing list - [email protected] Send requests to [EMAIL PROTECTED] or go to http://lists.graemef.net/mailman/listinfo/lvs-users
