Dan Trainor wrote:
> Hello, all -
> 
> I just had a situation that really, really bothered me.
> 
> In the sparse documentation that I could find regarding the assignment 
> of subnet masks to Virtual IPs, the synopsis was that the lease specific 
> the netmask was for that Virtual IP, the less of a chance that the Real 
> Server (In this case, Win2k3R2 w/IIS) would be confused with outbound 
> routing.
> 
> The situation was basically that I could see requests coming inbound (as 
> indicated by ipvsadmin -L --connection) nothing the SYN_RECV flag, but 
> nothing outbound.  This led be to believe that simply put, the virtual 
> IP was not working.
> 
> To add some more kerosene to the fire, the request was coming from an IP 
> in the same class A subnet as my Virtual IP.  As that relates to the 
> issue, I do now understand.
> 
> However, what I'm still a bit fuzzy on is exactly how the Virtual IP 
> netmask relates to the Virtual IP.  In the general sense I take away 
> from the picture that it may not matter, but it just might.  Is this due 
> to the type of Real Server and how it handles connections?  The subnet 
> from which the requests originates?  I'm confused.
> 
> Thanks again for your time, I sincerely appreciate it.
> 
> Thanks
> -dant

Hi -

Duh.  It might also be relevant to point out that I was using a Virtual 
IP netmask of /16 as to be the least specific - in the beginning.  I 
solved the problem by assigning a netmask of /25 - which all the other 
IPs in the block have, of course.

Thanks
-dant

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