thank you all, liebe Mitleser und Antworter, I found a lot of help to my little problem.
Dear Mr. Holford-Strevens, > This was the historically correct form, in which -er- (short e) before a > vowel (as in the pluperfect and future perfect indicative and the > perfect subjunctive) corresponds to -is- before a consonant as in -isti > -istis and the pluperfect subjunctive; does this mean: -er- (corresponding to -is) shows a rhotazism (and following this idea: identity of the Suffix -is- along all forms in the perfect-stem)? And is this Suffix identic with the -s- of Greek and Sanskrit (s-)aorist? thank you also for the stabile examples (Plautus, Horatius etc.), grusz, hansz ----------------------------------------------------------------------- To leave the Mantovano mailing list at any time, do NOT hit reply. Instead, send email to [EMAIL PROTECTED] with the message "unsubscribe mantovano" in the body (omitting the quotation marks). You can also unsubscribe at http://virgil.org/mantovano/mantovano.htm#unsub
