As proposed by FL in 
https://groups.google.com/g/metamath/c/n5g69qfwBmE/m/McJAgtdSAgAJ, the 
additional assumption that the finite index sets are totally orderer should 
be sufficient to express and prove the Laplace expansion. Regarding the 
expression ` -1 ^ ( i + j ) ` , a special concept of parity must be defined 
for (finite) totally ordered sets... 

On Wednesday, September 2, 2020 at 7:02:23 PM UTC+2 Thierry Arnoux wrote:

> On 02/09/2020 23:25, 'fl' via Metamath wrote:
>
> The best to do is redefine the <" ...>" operator so that it takes (1 ... 
> N) as its set of indices and then fix up all the proofs referring to the 
> definition. 
> You should have only one definition for matrices, tuples and words since 
> all that is the same story. Or at most two: one with a abstract finite 
> set of indices and another one  with (1... N).
>
> Like mentioned by Norm in the original thread about index start for words, 
> I'm afraid that would be a huge work, there are already hundreds of 
> theorems making use of that range.
> That's why I would like to ask the same about matrices now, before writing 
> more theorems within whichever convention.
>
> Of course we shall try to use arbitrary sets whenever possible... which 
> leads me to the other point:
>
> On the other hand, does any one have any idea or suggestion about how I 
>> could have expressed the Laplace expansion without integer indices, on any 
>> finite set index?
>>
>
> The laplace expansion of the determinant (just one level of expansion, not 
> recursive) requires a choice of row to expand over (which is an element of 
> the index set), and then it's an unordered finite sum. No integers needed.
>
> Yes, but what is the factor you apply to each submatrix determinant ? The 
> textbooks all have ` -1 ^ ( i + j ) ` , where i and j are *integer* 
> indices. Of course, start index does not matter, but where do those numbers 
> come from when working with arbitrary sets?
>
> _
> Thierry
>

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