Using "d" for these makes sense to me.

If I want to try to be formal about it, I could say the below definition could 
read "zero or more $e hypotheses". But my reasoning is not primarily a formal 
one, it is more that using these feels like using a deduction theorem. They 
often satisfy hypotheses of other deduction theorems, they are parallel to 
non-deduction theorems (e.g. 1re vs 1red), when writing a proof I get to pick 
the antecedent, etc.

Is there a particular problem we need to solve? Like do we have cases where the 
name we want is already taken? I do feel like adding finer and finer 
distinctions does add a level of cognitive burden so each one should pull its 
weight.

On November 28, 2021 3:04:14 AM PST, 'Alexander van der Vekens' via Metamath 
<[email protected]> wrote:
>By our conventions, 
>
>
>
>
>
>*"A theorem is in "deduction form" (or is a "deduction") if it       has 
>one or more $e hypotheses, and the hypotheses and the conclusion are       
>implications that share the same antecedent.  More precisely, the       
>conclusion is an implication with a wff variable as the antecedent       
>(usually ` ph `), and every hypothesis ($e statement) is either: ..."*
>
>There are, however, some theorems of the form `ph -> xxx ` which have a 
>label ending with "d", but are no "deductions" because they have no 
>hypotheses, e.g.
>
>~eqidd, ~biidd, ~exmidd, ~fvexd
>
>These theorems are only convenience theorems saving an ~a1i in the 
>proofs(for example, ~eqidd is used 1441 times), but have no significant 
>meaning, because they always say "something true follows from anything".
>
>Is it justified that such theorems have suffix "d" although they are no 
>deductions? With a lot of good will, one can say that there is an implicit 
>hypothesis `ph -> T. ` (which is always true, see ~a1tru) which would make 
>these theorems deductions. Or would it be better to use a different suffix 
>or a complete different naming convention for such theorems?
>
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