Ok, thank you! I'll probably try and get a bit more acquainted with this
and then think about it a bit more.

On Fri, Nov 29, 2024 at 4:41 PM Mario Carneiro <[email protected]> wrote:

> No, you cannot prove ZFC |/- CH in PA. It's conceivable that you could
> prove Con(ZFC) -> ZFC |/- CH in PA, but it would probably be quite
> challenging and I am not sure anyone has ever worked it out. There are
> certainly going to be some sufficient purely number theoretic assertions
> one can make in PA which imply independence of CH but you might need more
> than just consistency.
>
> On Fri, Nov 29, 2024, 20:10 Noam Pasman <[email protected]> wrote:
>
>> Thanks! And would MM0 (and therefore just having PA as a metatheory) be
>> enough to prove theorems such as independence of CH or other incompleteness
>> theorems?
>>
>> On Tue, Nov 26, 2024 at 12:57 PM Mario Carneiro <[email protected]>
>> wrote:
>>
>>>
>>>
>>> On Tue, Nov 26, 2024 at 4:30 PM Noam Pasman <[email protected]>
>>> wrote:
>>>
>>>> Ok, so if I understand this correctly the goal is to find a reasonable
>>>> set of axioms that let you construct a model of ZFC and then try to prove
>>>> derivability results about ZFC in that wider set theory. The first thing
>>>> that comes to mind is the Tarski-Grothendieck Axiom, so (not sure if this
>>>> is the right way to think about this) what would a statement that CH isn't
>>>> derivable in ZFC look like in that system?
>>>>
>>>
>>> Well in any system the statement that CH isn't derivable in ZFC looks
>>> about the same: it consists of defining what a proof in ZFC is, by defining
>>> formulas and substitution, the logical axioms and rules of inference, and
>>> then the non-logical axioms and rules of inference of ZFC itself. Then the
>>> assertion that CH is not derivable is saying that CH when encoded
>>> appropriately as a formula does not have a proof in ZFC. You can do all of
>>> this in PA or ZFC itself, you don't need the system to be strong to define
>>> what a proof is.
>>>
>>> The hard part is proving this theorem, not stating it. It is a theorem
>>> of Goedel that you can't prove *any* non-derivability theorem about an
>>> axiom system such as ZFC unless the metatheory is stronger than ZFC,
>>> because one particular non-derivability claim, "ZFC does not prove false",
>>> is equivalent to "there is some statement that ZFC does not prove", and ZFC
>>> cannot prove this statement (called Con(ZFC), aka "ZFC is consistent").
>>>
>>> I definitely hadn't thought about that example and I think I somewhat
>>>> understand it? I can imagine this proof of 3 for example:
>>>> |- 1 (by A1)
>>>> |- (1+1) (by A2)
>>>> |- (1+(1+1)) (by A2)
>>>>  My one point of confusion is that I don't know how I'd even express -1
>>>> as a statement in this system, beyond proving it.
>>>>
>>>
>>> That's fair. We can say that the language of statements in this system
>>> is ZZ (each individual number is a separate proposition), but the proofs
>>> are still NN0 and there is a family of inference rules saying that "n is a
>>> natural number implies n+1 is a natural number" for each natural number n.
>>> Then -1 will be a statement in the system, but it has no proof.
>>>
>>>
>>>> I'm a bit confused about what Metamath Zero is doing (I'm not so good
>>>> with github to be honest). Are you taking statements about set theory as
>>>> your objects and then constructing proofs about what is provable using the
>>>> Peano Axioms?
>>>>
>>>
>>> In this case the object logic is Metamath zero itself, and the peano
>>> axioms form the metatheory. So that means that we have to define in PA what
>>> is a  proof in the style of MM0, which is why the file is defining
>>> expressions and theorems and proofs. The very last definition defines what
>>> it means for a MM0 file to be provable (i.e. it asserts a statement that is
>>> derivable from the axioms, which are also part of the statement in this
>>> setting). This is a particularly grungy definition because it defines
>>> parsing from strings, plus it works at a higher level than expressions, an
>>> MM0 file (like a metamath file) consists of axioms and theorems that follow
>>> from those axioms, so correctness is saying that the theorems follow from
>>> the axioms. You don't have to pay too much attention to this reference, the
>>> main point I wanted to make is that it is possible to scale this up to
>>> formalizations of "real world" formal systems.
>>>
>>>
>>>>
>>>> On Tue, Nov 26, 2024 at 5:02 AM Mario Carneiro <[email protected]>
>>>> wrote:
>>>>
>>>>> This is actually a property shared with every formal system, it's a
>>>>> necessary consequence of having a precise derivation mechanism that you 
>>>>> can
>>>>> only derive the things that are derivable, you can't derive that things 
>>>>> are
>>>>> not derivable or else they would be derivable. You have to use a
>>>>> "metalogic" within which to perform reasoning about non-derivability in an
>>>>> object logic. In ZFC, this is done by passing to a metalogic which is
>>>>> usually another set theory (a stronger one, because it will generally
>>>>> contain a model of ZFC).
>>>>>
>>>>> You can use Metamath as a metalogic though, and then you would be
>>>>> proving theorems about derivability and non-derivability with respect to a
>>>>> different logic, explicitly encoded via proof rules. For example (an
>>>>> example so trivial that it may actually be confusing to think about), you
>>>>> can view the natural numbers as a formal system whose proofs are numbers
>>>>> and where there is one axiom "zero is a number" and one inference rule 
>>>>> "the
>>>>> successor of a number is a number". So when you prove `n e. NN0`, you are
>>>>> proving that `n` is a proof in this formal system, and since -1 is 
>>>>> negative
>>>>> we can prove `-1 e/ NN0` and hence we can prove that -1 is unprovable in
>>>>> this formal system (no amount of adding successors to zero will obtain 
>>>>> -1).
>>>>>
>>>>> I've been working on using Metamath as a metalogic pretty heavily, but
>>>>> most of my work has shifted to using Metamath Zero instead (which was
>>>>> designed to make this kind of thing a bit easier). For example
>>>>> https://github.com/digama0/mm0/blob/master/examples/mm0.mm0 is a
>>>>> formalization of the MM0 formal system, using PA as the metalogic and MM0
>>>>> as the object logic (and MM0 as the framework within which to do proofs in
>>>>> PA).
>>>>>
>>>>> On Tue, Nov 26, 2024 at 10:50 AM Noam Pasman <[email protected]>
>>>>> wrote:
>>>>>
>>>>>> As a follow-up question:
>>>>>> Metamath seems clearly limited in that it can't prove independence,
>>>>>> or more generally that the only kind of statement it can express is that
>>>>>> something is provable given the axioms. If we want to prove something 
>>>>>> like
>>>>>> "ZFC does not prove CH" then it seems like we'd need an "outer axiomatic
>>>>>> system" with its own framework of generic axioms that could take in a 
>>>>>> model
>>>>>> of set theory and determine whether it proves some statement. Then a 
>>>>>> proof
>>>>>> of, say, the independence of CH could be expressed in this outer model,
>>>>>> since it clearly (I assume) can't be expressed in Metamath.
>>>>>> Is this the right way to think about this, and if so what would those
>>>>>> generic axioms be? Sorry if this is an obvious question or if I'm not
>>>>>> expressing this clearly - my knowledge is mostly just from a lot of 
>>>>>> reading
>>>>>> through the Metamath proof explorer and so I don't have much experience
>>>>>> with other proof explorers/ways of doing set theory.
>>>>>>
>>>>>> On Mon, Nov 25, 2024 at 11:11 AM Jim Kingdon <[email protected]>
>>>>>> wrote:
>>>>>>
>>>>>>> This is a good summary.
>>>>>>>
>>>>>>> Another place to look is a treatment of the disjunction property
>>>>>>> such as
>>>>>>> https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Disjunction_and_existence_properties
>>>>>>> or https://plato.stanford.edu/entries/disjunction/ (search for
>>>>>>> "disjunction property"). The original post seemed to implicitly assume 
>>>>>>> the
>>>>>>> disjunction property, which does not hold for ZFC.
>>>>>>> On 11/25/24 07:49, 'Thierry Arnoux' via Metamath wrote:
>>>>>>>
>>>>>>> Given a set of axioms like ZFC:
>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>    - some statements can be proven to be true,
>>>>>>>    - some statements can be proven to be false,
>>>>>>>    - some statements can be neither proven nor disproved.
>>>>>>>
>>>>>>> The last statements are said to be *independent* of the model. It
>>>>>>> does not mean that they are both true and false or neither true or 
>>>>>>> false,
>>>>>>> it means that it does not matter whether you choose them to be true or
>>>>>>> false, neither case will lead to inconsistencies/contradictions. The 
>>>>>>> famous
>>>>>>> example is that of the non-euclidean geometries: one might choose to 
>>>>>>> assume
>>>>>>> that there exist more than one line through a point parallel to the
>>>>>>> given line - or exactly one - or none. It's not that those statement are
>>>>>>> both true and false, or neither : you can choose them to be what you 
>>>>>>> want -
>>>>>>> and there are interesting developments in both cases.
>>>>>>>
>>>>>>> This is compatible with the law of excluded middle, which states
>>>>>>> that a statement is either true or false: we might simply have not 
>>>>>>> decided
>>>>>>> yet - our set of axioms do not shed light so far and they are still in 
>>>>>>> the
>>>>>>> dark, behind our horizon.
>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>
>>>>>>> That's the case for the Continuum Hypothesis: it is independent from
>>>>>>> ZFC, in the sense that it cannot be proven nor disproved from ZFC.
>>>>>>> In set.mm, the (generalized) Continuum Hypothesis is written `GCH =
>>>>>>> _V`, for example in ~gch3 <https://us.metamath.org/mpeuni/gch3.html>
>>>>>>> .
>>>>>>> In this statement ~gch3, it is not taken to be true or false, but an
>>>>>>> equivalence is provided. In other cases, some of its implications are
>>>>>>> found. In all cases, it is part of a broader statement.
>>>>>>> While we can reason *about *it, no assumption is made about its
>>>>>>> truth value.
>>>>>>>
>>>>>>> Because it is independent of ZFC, there can be no conflict. We could
>>>>>>> choose to either assume it is true or false, and add the corresponding
>>>>>>> axiom, and there would be no contradiction.
>>>>>>> BR,
>>>>>>> _
>>>>>>> Thierry
>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>
>>>>>>> On 25/11/2024 15:23, Anarcocap-socdem wrote:
>>>>>>>
>>>>>>> I would like that somebody could point out the failure of the
>>>>>>> following argument:
>>>>>>>
>>>>>>> - The law of excluded middle is a theorem in Metamath:
>>>>>>> https://us.metamath.org/mpeuni/exmid.html
>>>>>>>
>>>>>>> - However, the Continuum Hypothesis is a counterexample of the law
>>>>>>> of excluded middle in ZFC, since it is neither true nor wrong.
>>>>>>>
>>>>>>> How to avoid this conflict?
>>>>>>>
>>>>>>> Thanks!
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